Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 01:38
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Why do people still think Michael Jackson was guilty?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why do people stay in cults after they have joined?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Resident Evil surprise return announced by PlayStation - GAMINGbible
There's no rule.